Sunday, June 9, 2013

What exactly did the PJM mean when he asked the questions?--I thought he was challenging members of Apostolic churches other than his own to try proving their credentials to his satisfaction.

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Originally Posted by Cappadocious View Post
Many more after the establishment of Orthodoxy, because Orthodoxy was established before the advent of the neoplatonic prophet Plotinus.
I would disagree with that... There were certainly proto-orthodox Christians in the first few centuries, but when I speak of a formal orthodoxy, I'm referring to the "official" form of Christianity established around the Council of Nicea. That's not to say there's anything in the Nicene Creed I particularly disagree with, but that council established a formal universal orthodoxy throughout the Empire. Plotinus lived and died before the Council of Nicea.

Originally Posted by Cappadocious View Post
Why do you accept the Roman Catholic definition of catholic as "universal"?
I'm confused by your question... Roman Catholics have a very different idea of what "catholic" means. The word "katholikos" literally means universal or general. What does it mean to you?

Originally Posted by Cappadocious View Post
Except for the Councils of Jerusalem, Rome, Ephesus, Carthage, Iconium, Gangra, Arabia, Ancyra, Arles, and the post-Roman councils of Iasi and Jerusalem 1672, among numerous other non-Ecumenical (Roman dominion) councils.
Maybe I should clarify that by "catholic" and "orthodox" (without capital letters), I'm not referring to any particular denomination such as Eastern Orthodoxy, Roman Catholicism, etc. Maybe it would have been better to say "Chalcedonian Christianity" to describe orthodox-catholic Christianity as a whole prior to the East-West split.
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Old 6th February 2013, 07:16 PM
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=Cappadocious;62347786]Many more after the establishment of Orthodoxy, because Orthodoxy was established before the advent of the neoplatonic prophet Plotinus.


Why do you accept the Roman Catholic definition of catholic as "universal"?


Except for the Councils of Jerusalem, Rome, Ephesus, Carthage, Iconium, Gangra, Arabia, Ancyra, Arles, and the post-Roman councils of Iasi and Jerusalem 1672, among numerous other non-Ecumenical (Roman dominion) councils.

WHY ACCEPT the Catholic definations? [HUGE SMILES ADDED]

Because they are the SINGULAR truths.

WORKS for me [another HUGE smile]

And It's provalbe biblically and much of it historically as well.

It's always a joy [seriously] to speak with folks who claim to know MORE and or to Know bwtter than God. [Add another HUGHE smile]

continued Blessings my friends,
working4christ/ PJM / Pat
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Old 8th February 2013, 03:11 PM
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Originally Posted by gnosisofthomas View Post
I'm confused by your question... Roman Catholics have a very different idea of what "catholic" means. The word "katholikos" literally means universal or general. What does it mean to you?
The word "katholikos" literally means "according to the whole".

Originally Posted by gnosisofthomas View Post
Maybe I should clarify that by "catholic" and "orthodox" (without capital letters), I'm not referring to any particular denomination such as Eastern Orthodoxy, Roman Catholicism, etc. Maybe it would have been better to say "Chalcedonian Christianity" to describe orthodox-catholic Christianity as a whole prior to the East-West split.
I think the confusion arose because you said "the councils" were there to decide what could be backed by the Roman Empire.
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Old 8th February 2013, 04:53 PM
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Originally Posted by Cappadocious View Post
The word "katholikos" literally means "according to the whole".
Okay... so how is that much different from "universal"? It refers to the whole of Christendom.
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Old 8th February 2013, 11:44 PM
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Originally Posted by gnosisofthomas View Post
Okay... so how is that much different from "universal"? It refers to the whole of Christendom.
We would say that it properly refers to the complete and whole Church that exists in and through the Eucharistic community of bishop, presbyter, deacon and laity. As St. Ignatius says, "where the bishop is, there is the catholic church."

We do not believe it means "universal" in the sense of covering the most space or encompassing the most Christian-identifying people, or Christendom as a whole. In the context of the Roman Empire that would be close to "Ecumene".
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Old 9th February 2013, 10:16 AM
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Originally Posted by gnosisofthomas View Post
Okay... so how is that much different from "universal"? It refers to the whole of Christendom.
Not really. The meaning is closer to "authentic." It definitely does NOT refer primarily to the geographical spread of the faith or the number of adherents.
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Old 21st February 2013, 04:12 AM
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What exactly did the OP mean when he asked the questions?
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Old 21st February 2013, 10:05 AM
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Originally Posted by WisdomTree View Post
What exactly did the OP mean when he asked the questions?
I thought he was challenging members of Apostolic churches other than his own to try proving their credentials to his satisfaction.
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Old 16th March 2013, 03:29 PM
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Any church that claims to "be apostolic" is the fartherst thing from it. Those who truly walk in the apostilic, individually or corporately, have no need to make it part of their title.

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